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Joel Smalley's avatar

This nails it for me: "The result of iatrogenic harm may not be immediately apparent. It may not become apparent even in the same shift, or during the same day. In some cases the iatrogenic cause for and the patient’s resulting negative outcome may never be identified and linked together at all."

In the absence of direct evidence of harm (correct me if I'm wrong but there was none presented?), why is it presupposed that the indirect harm leading to death (if indeed it was not a natural death) has to occur in the same shift as the death?

It doesn't even require a great deal of thought or logical capacity, does it? Unless, your faculties are subverted by dogma, I guess?

So many questions that should have been asked... But, hey - "found guilty in a court of law"... So...

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al's avatar

Here in Scotland I can guarantee you, that the evidence would not have passed the evidential threshold, the fact that the PM’s are not in the evidence chain is disconcerting. As you know inference or hearsay is not evidence, much like the insulin poisoning, with no tangible evidence, which should have been struck.

Until these PM’s are produced we are pissing in the wind, it beggars belief that Goss allowed “expert witnesses” to traduce the PM’s.. not even produced as evidence, both the conduct of Myers and Goss trouble me, as it should all.

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